A 60-year-old male with documented ASCVD, obesity with BMI of 34, and type 2 diabetes presents for care. The patient reports he's currently feeling well without episodes of hypoglycemia. Current laboratory assessment includes the following. A1C is 8.6 % and his estimated GFR is at 62. Current medications include metformin at optimized dose and a sulfonyl urea. Which of the following represents the nurse practitioner's next best action? A. continue on current therapy and arrange for a three mo...